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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.
Topic 2
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 3
  • Diseases and Disease Processes and Application to the Clinical Chart Review: Covers clinical indicators across all ICD-10-CM chapters, applied to chart reviews, with recognition of medications, diagnostic tests, and abbreviations as documentation clarification triggers.
Topic 4
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 5
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 6
  • Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

NEW QUESTION # 17
A prospective record review of a problem list states: "Upper respiratory infection (resolved), fractured right femoral head (resolved), metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology), hypertension, morbid obesity, and bipolar disorder." Which of the following query opportunities would provide the highest risk adjusted impact?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In ambulatory CDI risk adjustment, the largest RAF impact typically comes from ensuring accurate capture of high-weight, HCC-relevant chronic conditions-especially active malignancies with metastasis. "Metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology)" suggests an ongoing, clinically significant condition, but the wording could represent active metastatic disease, history of metastatic disease, remission, or no current evidence of disease. Because HCC models distinguish active metastatic cancer from history-only status, clarifying the current status (active/under treatment, recurrent, in remission, history) can materially change whether the condition qualifies for risk adjustment and how the patient's expected cost is benchmarked. By comparison, adding BMI (when morbid obesity is already documented) generally does not increase HCC capture, and fracture sequelae typically does not drive HCC risk scoring in the same way. Bipolar disorder may map to an HCC, but its relative impact is generally lower than metastatic cancer, making melanoma status the highest-value clarification.


NEW QUESTION # 18
CMS-HCCs are used to

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CMS-HCC model is a risk adjustment methodology used primarily to set capitated payments for Medicare Advantage (MA) organizations based on the expected cost of caring for their enrolled beneficiaries. Under this approach, CMS calculates a Risk Adjustment Factor (RAF) for each member using demographic variables (such as age/sex and certain entitlement factors) plus disease burden captured from ICD-10-CM diagnoses that map to Hierarchical Condition Categories (HCCs). The resulting RAF increases or decreases the plan's payment to better match predicted healthcare needs-higher RAF for sicker, more complex patients and lower RAF for healthier patients. ACDIS outpatient CDI education emphasizes that the purpose is not physician reimbursement based on a "principal diagnosis" (an inpatient concept) and not payment distribution tied directly to quality performance (that aligns more with MIPS/VBP frameworks). It also does not adjust capitation payments specifically "to physicians," nor does it exclude advanced practice providers in the way described. The correct use is to determine MA plan capitation payments through risk-adjusted member-level projections.


NEW QUESTION # 19
A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient's vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19, and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia, hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient's medications are called into the pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best query is chronic respiratory failure because home oxygen is a strong clinical indicator that often reflects an underlying chronic hypoxemic condition beyond uncomplicated COPD. Outpatient CDI guidance stresses that queries should be driven by present clinical indicators in the note and should seek clarification that impacts accurate diagnosis capture and ongoing care. Here, the provider documents COPD plus home oxygen and is arranging continued services (medication management and home health), which supports asking whether the patient has a reportable condition such as chronic respiratory failure with hypoxia (or COPD with chronic hypoxemia) and whether it is being monitored/managed. The other options lack support: acute blood loss anemia has no bleeding, hemodynamic instability, or acute findings; peripheral neuropathy is not assessed or described despite diabetes; and CKD has no labs, staging, history, or assessment. A compliant query would be non-leading and include the indicator (home O₂) and request the most accurate diagnosis and specificity/status.


NEW QUESTION # 20
When evaluating a CDI specialist's performance, which of the following expectations is held to the same standard for both inpatient and outpatient initiatives?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Across both inpatient and outpatient CDI, the single expectation that must remain consistent is query compliance. While productivity targets, the types of query opportunities, and the way "impact" is measured can differ significantly by setting (e.g., DRG/CC-MCC focus in inpatient vs. HCC capture, specificity, and MEAT support in outpatient), the compliance framework for querying does not change. A compliant query must be clinically supported, non-leading, clearly written, and must allow the provider to independently determine the most accurate documentation based on the record. It should include relevant clinical indicators, present reasonable options (including "other"/"unable to determine" when appropriate), and avoid language that appears to request diagnoses for payment purposes. These principles protect documentation integrity, support defensible coding, and reduce audit risk regardless of whether the encounter is hospital-based or ambulatory. By contrast, "review productivity" and "revenue impact" vary widely by program design and setting, and "query opportunities" differ because inpatient vs. outpatient have different reportability rules and documentation drivers. Therefore, query compliance is the metric held to the same standard in both environments.


NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following illustrates an example of a compliant, prospective query?

Answer: A

Explanation:
A compliant prospective query is initiated before the next encounter so the provider can clarify documentation during the upcoming visit, using clinically relevant indicators without directing a specific diagnosis. Option A does this appropriately: it references an existing CHF history and a supportive medication (Lasix), then asks the provider to confirm whether CHF is pertinent at the next visit and, if so, to specify type and acuity. This supports accurate outpatient reporting because heart failure coding requires specificity (systolic/diastolic/combined; acute/chronic/acute on chronic) and should reflect what is actually evaluated/managed at the encounter. Option B is retrospective and attempts to justify a prior test. Option C is leading because it asks the provider to "add" a diagnosis to a past note rather than clarify current clinical status. Option D is also retrospective and uses "please add CHF," which is leading and can be perceived as prompting. Therefore, A best demonstrates a compliant prospective query.


NEW QUESTION # 22
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